Please apply to real world markets. Examples would draw out the concepts. TY
Swear you go from 0 to 100 so quick here haha.
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Do you mind providing us with some historical and current options data to work along? Say, in your case here: A panel data on non dividend paying European call, with many strikes and maturities.
One question please 17:47, I can do the same algebra on dSt = St(mu*dt + sigma*dWt), then I can also say St also martingale. why is that not correct? Thank you!
Thanks for the very nice explanation! Just one question: at 16:07, do we really need the term dS * d(1/B) ? It seems that Itô's lemma will only apply to dS and not to the d(1/B) piece. This is because there is no Wiener process present in B. Another way to see this is that the term dS * d(1/B) is of order (dt)^{3/2}. Furthermore, this is precisely the reason why the cross terms marked in yellow in the next slide do not contribute eventually. Am I correct?
This is oriented to options and to be honest anyone can predict the future.
Hi, why do we have to calculate to the derivative of s(t)/b(t) ?
This is literally like my Quantum Computing degree.
Sorry, studying this i am very confused about the approach using risk neutral probability and feynmanc kac formula. Are they the same thing, or linked in somewhay?
It is totally wrong to hedge risk neutral you have to BUY a fraction of the underlying to follow the long option contract. Indeed if you are a banker you sell a call option to somebody, price of the Underlying rising and rising, you have to pay him a lot so of course you needed to buy the same amount to be in profit as well. Not to short the underlying
How is it gonna work if you use made up probabilities and not the real probabilities?
What did you study at university?
Why is d(1/Bt) = - r *1/(Bt) *dt
This one is definitely not for babies (like me).
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