He creates a feeling of ease towards physics
Today I actually felt like "Understanding" something after coming to college. Awesome lecture!!!
The demonstration at the end is beyond beautiful :')
1:02:11 It is kinda obvios, increase the T to infinity and the string will just rotate about a hinge like a rod, the wave speed is infinity, but this also means that the string is very non-extensible and thick which kinda gives an idea that mu is infinity or at least close
The lecture is absolutely awesome. There is one thing I am missing. How do I know that n beads have exactly n normal modes? Is it a theorem of calculus or is there a physical explanation? And if it is just a mathematical fact, what are the actual requisites? Is it true for any system of n differential equations with each unknown proportional to its second derivative? I do understand that all the solutions of such a system can be found by linearly combining n solutions, but the fact that I can always find exactly n "easy" solutions where all x's have the same frequency and phase is quite a powerful statement and I am curious to know where it comes from.
48:55 you can get a man out of the Netherlands, but you can’t take the Netherlands out of the man.
Great Lectures! Nice Explanation!
Can you repeat that
SIr. if i am not wrong it would not be better to say that dy/dx should be low in assumption for derivation of wave equation rather to say amplitude should be low. what would be the shape of the string if the fixed end is infinitely rigid.
Sir amazing video . Got so interested in them . Sir a little request please recommend such professor for organic chemistry also. Got physics help but couldn't find such professor of chemistry.
I had to search for wave reflection in slow motion
Hello sir, at 5:40, while writing Newton's 2nd law, why you are not considering "mg" for that bead? thank you.
1:17:30 schwinghaiiiiiii
Sir by applying which mathematics we can get the the trial function for A which have do in 17:12
Professor, at 20:41, you say that if we replace p by (N+1)/2 we should get zero, and indeed we do, but isn't the formula defined for p which are only integers, so replacing p by (N+1)/2 would only make sense if N would be an odd number? Thank you.
Sir how f(t+x/v) represent the wave travelling in the negative sir please give a explanation on this lots of Indian books doesn't even speak of this just we can find a equation there
Sir can you please provide me the Matlab coding which you used?
sir, when 1:10:10 when u talk about the shape of the wave, u told dy/dx=0 , if it weren't then it wud have infinite acceleration which we dont allow... sir, so doesnt that mean the massless bead will make the string taut? isnt that what shud happen when u try to generate a mountain/valley?
@anjungkne