Has to be the best physics tutorial I've seen on youtube and it's way better than most profs do in class.
The commutator of two operators is defined [A,B] = AB - BA, so -[A,B] = [B,A], so whether you get [x,p] or [p,x] with a negative somewhere else doesn't really change the result, just the way it's expressed.
this is an old video but brooo you're saving my life I have a quantum mechanics midterm and this makes so much sense yaaay
This is by far, one if the best quantum mechanics explanations I have come across on youtube
This whole video is very professionally done, I love how neat your writing is, and how clearly you relay the information. Thank you!
Excellent series!!! Thank you Prof. Carlson. Extremely well explained. I'm glued to this series!!!!
At 32:18 you say that the denominator is equal to one, so we can ignore it. You say its because sqrt(n+1) where n is zero so the denominator is 1. But actually it's because the denominator would be sqrt(1!) from the formula for PSI_ n.
Excellent!! How logical and clear this lecture is. Appreciate it a lot!
Do conmutators have something to do with Poisson brackets?
I really wish you were my teacher and not who I have now... this was a question on the test and I was completely lost... anyways, I'm very grateful this video exists.
I have a quantum mechanics test tomorrow and you just saved my life
WOW, I had already done this, but here it is better done and clearer. 1/2 QFT is in this lesson. well done thanks!!
if you had factored out +imw instead of -imw you would end up with [p,x] and get a different results, how did you know that you want to get [x,p]?
You're a lifesaver, that's all I have to say.
Superb quantum mechanics videos. Your hard work is appreciated.
While calculating the lowest energy psi(0), where is "i" of the a- ladder operator.
why can you write a+ in the left side? isn't that implying that the ladder and the hamiltonian commute? (which they seem not to)
Brant, just for this time, I don't fully understand the whole concept of ladder operator. Is ladder operator used to reconstruct the Schrodinger solution or just simplify it ?
at 32.26 example, may I know why is (n+1)^1/2 instead of (n)^1/2 as the formula as shown at 31.54?
@NomenNominandum